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Week 2 of GCN Bible Studies:
For many years of my Christian walk, I didn't "get" the Psalms. It seemed that most of the Old Testament, in fact, was pretty much expendable. And so it seems fitting, somehow, that our first two weekly Scripture passages have both been from the Psalms. Give them a chance, and you'll find that these passages have a lot to say, even about things that seem to be New Testament material, like sin and redemption. Christians often talk about the work Jesus did, sacrificing himself for us and "redeeming" us - paying for the sins we've committed. It's something only Jesus could have done; we cannot redeem ourselves, nor can we redeem each other. Our salvation depends on God. But this idea didn't begin in the New Testament. It wasn't something cooked up by Jesus' followers to explain his death. Take a look at this Psalm to see how even many years before Jesus, the people of God were grappling with this question. Although this passage is quite somber, pay special attention to the final lines.
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I have some uncertainties about whether the Psalm really has messianic overtones, as suggested in the introductory notes. I see verse 15 as a promise of life after death. Not all translations use the word "redeem" there. I use the Geneva Bible, and the translation reads "But God shall deliver my soul from the power of the grave: for he will receive me." Although it is quite clear why references such as these would echo strongly in Christian mind.
There was something else I wanted to comment on, v. 7. How are we to understand it in the light of 1 Corinthians 7:14, where St Paul writes about marriage between a believer and a non-believer: "For the unbelieving husband is made holy through his wife, and the unbelieving wife is made holy through her husband"; the implication being that one's faith can sanctify those who don't believe, by the very power of faith. Isn't that a sort of redemption of the life of another, while the Psalm says such a thing can't ever happen? Or is that something that has been enabled by Christ's death, something the Psalmist may not have had a complete idea of? |
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I don't know if I see a messianic message here, but I do certainly see that the writer is saying that only God can make us whole and give us life. No one is saved by riches, or wisdom, or a good name, (or, I think, by following the law), but just by the grace of God.
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I think more of what is being said in the verse you question regarding the husband being sanctified through (in) his wife, in Corinthians isn't saying that the husband is now holy because of the wife's belief perse.
I think it is more in saying that if two unbelievers marry and one finds Christ during the marriage, there is no need to the new Christian to leave the marriage if the unbeliever wishes to stay. In that way, the unbeliever is sanctified through the faith of the believer. It actually goes with this: Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved and your family. (Acts 16:31) You know the old saying: "A bad apple ruins the whole bunch?". Well, I feel that this verse is telling us that the faith of the believer can "rub off" onto the unbeliever and bring him to Christ. _________________ You Can Be Both Forum--If you join, please use the same username you have here, so that you can be quickly verified by an Administrator let us know you are from GC.org. |
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Perhaps I'm being too literal about it, which is not my approach usually, but Corinthians really is saying precisely that 'the unbelieving husband is made holy through his wife.' Literally like that. I never knew what to make of that verse, as it doesn't seem to be in line with other teachings that seem not to allow proxies in our relationship with God or during the process of redemption. At the same time, it has been no small source of comfort, given that my partner is an unbeliever. Can one have faith enough for two? |
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We'll have to agree to disagree on the interperation of that one.
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Sure, I don't have a problem with that.
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